Shalom,
According to all the authorities I've discussed this question with, especially Israelis who are linguists and experts in Hebrew, the answer is no. Yeshua (יֵשׁוּעַ) was a relatively common name in the Second Temple period, an Aramaic version of Yehoshua (יְהוֹשֻׁעַ). It is first mentioned in the Book of Ezra (Ezra 2:2).
Moreover, it's clear that Yeshua "came in disguise" to Israel. He was the Suffering Servant who "emptied Himself" of regal authority to become our Sin Bearer. He referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and Mashiach, but He never used the Divine Name other than as an ascription about His identity (John 8:58).
For some further discussion about this question, please see:
http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Script ... ashem.htmland
http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Names_ ... _vain.htmlas well as the list of Names of the Son of God:
http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Names_ ... donai.html